In other words, the difference between "power" and "authority" is at stake here? Obama has the power to do it but not the rightful authority?
Yes, a state can trample the federal constitution: they do get away with it sometimes. It's not always that a case can make it to the supreme court to overrule a state's trampling the federal constitution. I mean, I see what you are saying but I still don't agree. What I am saying also is that five will get you ten you wouldn't be bitching about the USSC trampling it had the verdict been different. I doubt you would have said anything negative (though again I can't read your mind, just following your argument right here). And yet, by your logic, even hearing the case in the first place would trample it.
Why therefore would it not have been trampling the constitution, if the case had been lost instead of won by the proponents of same sex marriage?
yeah the Court doesn't always decide something in the best interests of the Constitution. But then again, there aren't any constitutional restrictions on its power/authority, are there? I read nothing in Article III technically limiting the court's power in any way. I am not saying it should be unlimited, but I am saying that the cause of this whole thing is not particular justices on the bench now, nor is it the cause of the "gays"; it's the cause of ambiguity in the federal constitution.
Probably the founding fathers never would have imagined Marshall would have decided Marbury v. Madison like he did, and the court would eventually become "a judge of its own power" (have you ever seen the movie First Monday in October? One of the justices says "this court is the judge of its own power!") The idea that the founding fathers designed a federal government consisting of three, equal parts is bullshit. They imagined the presidency would take a back seat to the Congress, as the legislature is the source of power in a republic (they reasoned at the time). But it's not like that anymore, is it?
And if limitations were put on the court in the constitution to limit its power to interpret the constitution, or to tell it HOW it could and couldn't interpret the constitution, would that not make null and void the purpose of a supreme constitutional court in the first place? Kinda make it so impotent that it would be useless and unnecessary to have?
Yes, a state can trample the federal constitution: they do get away with it sometimes. It's not always that a case can make it to the supreme court to overrule a state's trampling the federal constitution. I mean, I see what you are saying but I still don't agree. What I am saying also is that five will get you ten you wouldn't be bitching about the USSC trampling it had the verdict been different. I doubt you would have said anything negative (though again I can't read your mind, just following your argument right here). And yet, by your logic, even hearing the case in the first place would trample it.
Why therefore would it not have been trampling the constitution, if the case had been lost instead of won by the proponents of same sex marriage?
yeah the Court doesn't always decide something in the best interests of the Constitution. But then again, there aren't any constitutional restrictions on its power/authority, are there? I read nothing in Article III technically limiting the court's power in any way. I am not saying it should be unlimited, but I am saying that the cause of this whole thing is not particular justices on the bench now, nor is it the cause of the "gays"; it's the cause of ambiguity in the federal constitution.
Probably the founding fathers never would have imagined Marshall would have decided Marbury v. Madison like he did, and the court would eventually become "a judge of its own power" (have you ever seen the movie First Monday in October? One of the justices says "this court is the judge of its own power!") The idea that the founding fathers designed a federal government consisting of three, equal parts is bullshit. They imagined the presidency would take a back seat to the Congress, as the legislature is the source of power in a republic (they reasoned at the time). But it's not like that anymore, is it?
And if limitations were put on the court in the constitution to limit its power to interpret the constitution, or to tell it HOW it could and couldn't interpret the constitution, would that not make null and void the purpose of a supreme constitutional court in the first place? Kinda make it so impotent that it would be useless and unnecessary to have?